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asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 06:51
Yes The Hobbit notes that there are runes (thus the Certar not the Tengwar) on Orcrist.

Interestingly, for the 1960 Hobbit Tolkien attempted to correct the problem of why Gandalf couldn't read the runes, explaining in the revision that there was dried blood obscuring the writing.



[Edited on 27/8/2011 by Elthir]


That's a pretty lame explanation, if you ask me. If there was dried blood on the sword from the Fall of Gondolin, there are pretty much two options: EITHER the dried blood would have corroded that part of the sword to the point that you would NEVER had been able to read the runes at all (leaving blood on a sword very much accelerates the rate of corrosion and if it was enough blood to completely obscure the writing had been left for that long, it would seem to be enough to corrode that area of the sword to a point where the runes would be unreadable, considering they would probably not have been very big or engraved very deep) OR the elvish blade would have been immune to such corrosion in which case I don't see any reason why it would have been difficult to clean it off.

I'd be much more on board with the Gondolinian runes theory. (I did find several sources that indicated that they had their own similar-to-Cirth-but-not-quite-Cirth rune system) I'd be willing to accept that there was a somewhat obscure variation of runes that Elrond would know but Gandalf wouldn't. I mean, even Thorin (and probably many if not all of the dwarves) would have been able to read Cirth.

Again, we're back in Irrelevantville right now because there are legible runes on the sword and they are in Cirth and whether Gandalf or Thorin or Elrond reads them and explains the swords origins has yet to be seen.
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 08:33
For myself I see nothing lame with Tolkien's explanation, as there seems no great need (or hurry) to clean, and thus read, the runes at the moment the swords are discovered.

If Tolkien had written that in the first place, would readers question why they waited?

asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 08:40

If Tolkien had written that in the first place, would readers question why they waited?


Given the number of people who ask "Why didn't they just ask the eagles to take them to Mordor in the first place?" I'm gonna go with... YES.
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 12:52
Given the number of people who ask "Why didn't they just ask the eagles to take them to Mordor in the first place?" I'm gonna go with... YES.


Well, I note the wink but your fun example is one that hails from a need, or desire, to destroy the One; and so those who think they have a better way to do that important thing are going to wonder.

But there's no real reason, within the tale, to read these runes right away. I just find it hard to belive that anyone would wonder enough to ask: why not clean and read the swords when they found them instead of later?

As I'm guessing the answer to that would likewise be a question: why not later? which itself implies that there's no compelling reason to do it right away.
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 02:27
Given the number of people who ask "Why didn't they just ask the eagles to take them to Mordor in the first place?" I'm gonna go with... YES.


Well, I note the wink but your fun example is one that hails from a need, or desire, to destroy the One; and so those who think they have a better way to do that important thing are going to wonder.

But there's no real reason, within the tale, to read these runes right away. I just find it hard to belive that anyone would wonder enough to ask: why not clean and read the swords when they found them instead of later?

As I'm guessing the answer to that would likewise be a question: why not later? which itself implies that there's no compelling reason to do it right away.


"These look like good blades," said the wizard, half drawing them and looking at them curiously. "They were not made by any troll, nor by any smith among men in these parts and days; but when we can read the runes on them, we shall know more about them".

That's the quote from the book, and I can't find any quote that differs from that one or includes anything about dried blood. Was it perhaps in the notes somewhere, or could you provide the quote that refers to it?

I'm just curious because the swords caught their eye because they were beautiful and elaborately adorned, it's never mentioned that they were dirty, and while I can accept that elven blades would not corrode even when sullied with dried blood for extended periods, (Because if the elves can make blades glow, I'm sure they could make them hold up against dirt and grime! Haha) it seems to be more of an issue of understanding the runes. After all - if Gandalf could read the runes himself, why bother giving the swords to Elrond at all?

I agree with you, there's no pressing need apart from the fact that they're curious, and want to know the origin of the swords, but they also are mentioned to really not have done much of anything the entire next day except relax, recover, and bury a bunch of gold, so you'd think if they were so curious they could have cleaned the swords.

ETA: I've found the reference to the blood on the swords, but it would appear that the draft that held those revisions was abandoned and never published. I'm not sure, in that case, what we are meant to regard as canon. Being that the swords are from Gondolin, which had its own system of runes, I still believe it would be highly reasonable that the swords would be engraved in that system, which explains why Elrond would be needed to read them.

Again, whether or not the runes should be Cirth runes or Gondolin runes is pretty much a moot point considering they are on this sword as Cirth.

[Edited on 28/8/2011 by asea_aranion]
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 27, 2011 04:44
Yes I didn't mean to imply that the 1960 Hobbit was published by JRRT himself, but the reason I find it of note is that it was, in intent, a 'fuller' revision of The Hobbit -- a fuller attempt to make it fall in line better with The Lord of the Rings -- Tolkien correcting 'mistakes' and ideas that he felt did not fit well enough with Middle-earth as he had come to envision it.

I think I referred to the 1960 Hobbit earlier in the thread, in that Tolkien, perhaps notably here, did not revise the coloured hoods.


Tolkien didn't necessarily reject his revisions in particular, but when he gave as much as he had written to someone (no one knows who yet), this person's commentary appears to have influenced JRRT to abandon such a large scale rewriting. Tolkien woud revise The Hobbit after 1960 -- for copyright reasons (Ace Books), but when he did so, some think he did not have the 1960 Hobbit at hand.

In any case, even Tolkien would have to stand by the ultimate, published description, but I added this for possible interest -- with respect to a 'problem' often enough raised by readers -- and one Tolkien was certainly aware of, given the revision.

I find it interesting that the devised explanation is arguably simpler than trying to explain that the runes involved were so different that Gandalf could not read 'Orcrist'.
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 28, 2011 08:02
Another thing has had me thinking for a while now. How will they portray many of Bilbo's "invisible" scenes? We all know that throughout their adventures, Bilbo used the ring to get the Dwarves out of trouble. Now, it's easy to desribe what his actions are on paper, but how will they portray this on screen?

After all, many times he doesn't wear the Ring for a few seconds and then it's off. He has long scenes with it on - an entire battle against spiders being unseen or most of the time during his "stay" in Thranduil's cave ...

And will that "fiery" effect shown in the LOTR be present also in 'The Hobbit'? I think it's one of those continuity issues which they will have to change. One reason being that these movies aren't supposed to be as dark as the Trilogy, so I think PJ will discard that idea of looking at the shadow world when wearing the Ring ...

I don't know, I'm just speculating. What does everyone else think?
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 28, 2011 12:12
Ilandir I expect we will see some variations on what we've already seen in Lord of the Rings, and some new methods as well. For example, I think there are some scenes where it would be okay to use a fully invisible Bilbo (a la Bilbo returning to Bag End after his party) and some scenes where I think it will be similar to Frodo in the shadowy wraith-world... although without everything being so distorted and the giant flaming eyeball.

I agree that the shadow world we saw while Frodo was wearing the ring shouldn't be what we see with Bilbo, but I'm not sure that it would be a continuity issue... I could be wrong, but I don't remember Bilbo ever saying anything about the world he's in while wearing the ring being drastically different from what he sees normally and it's possible that, with Sauron still believing the ring to be lost, there would be no such shadows. This is all just more speculation, obviously.
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 29, 2011 09:44
As a completely unrelated sidebar... I was just watching the production videos again...

Is it just me, or does Hugo Weaving look exactly the same as he did ten years ago?

Waaaait a minute... what happened to the One Ring between filming???
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 29, 2011 09:51
Ilandir I expect we will see some variations on what we've already seen in Lord of the Rings, and some new methods as well. For example, I think there are some scenes where it would be okay to use a fully invisible Bilbo (a la Bilbo returning to Bag End after his party) and some scenes where I think it will be similar to Frodo in the shadowy wraith-world... although without everything being so distorted and the giant flaming eyeball.

I agree that the shadow world we saw while Frodo was wearing the ring shouldn't be what we see with Bilbo, but I'm not sure that it would be a continuity issue... I could be wrong, but I don't remember Bilbo ever saying anything about the world he's in while wearing the ring being drastically different from what he sees normally and it's possible that, with Sauron still believing the ring to be lost, there would be no such shadows. This is all just more speculation, obviously.

I agree. It's just one of those many things that can't be pin-pointed exactly, until we've seen the films.
Is it just me, or does Hugo Weaving look exactly the same as he did ten years ago?

Hehe! So true! He's probably the only "un-aged" character returning to 'The Hobbit' - amazing!
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 29, 2011 09:58
Ilandir I expect we will see some variations on what we've already seen in Lord of the Rings, and some new methods as well. For example, I think there are some scenes where it would be okay to use a fully invisible Bilbo (a la Bilbo returning to Bag End after his party) and some scenes where I think it will be similar to Frodo in the shadowy wraith-world... although without everything being so distorted and the giant flaming eyeball.

I agree that the shadow world we saw while Frodo was wearing the ring shouldn't be what we see with Bilbo, but I'm not sure that it would be a continuity issue... I could be wrong, but I don't remember Bilbo ever saying anything about the world he's in while wearing the ring being drastically different from what he sees normally and it's possible that, with Sauron still believing the ring to be lost, there would be no such shadows. This is all just more speculation, obviously.

I agree. It's just one of those many things that can't be pin-pointed exactly, until we've seen the films.

Right. I might say that I think it would look silly to have the entire spider battle filmed a la Gollum-wrestles-Frodo-at-the-Cracks-of-Doom, with only Sting visible, but someone else might think that would be a really cool part to have done that way.

At any rate, I certainly hope we can see him squeeze through the Back Door. I'd be quite crushed if I didn't get to see all his buttons pop off! (Though, again, it could also be quite neat if we just saw his shadow and then all of a sudden a bursting of buttons that fell to the floor. I could see it both ways.)


Is it just me, or does Hugo Weaving look exactly the same as he did ten years ago?

Hehe! So true! He's probably the only "un-aged" character returning to 'The Hobbit' - amazing!

And cut to the return of my totally irrational crush on Hugo Weaving...
Aegor
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 29, 2011 11:13
Another thing has had me thinking for a while now. How will they portray many of Bilbo's "invisible" scenes? We all know that throughout their adventures, Bilbo used the ring to get the Dwarves out of trouble. Now, it's easy to desribe what his actions are on paper, but how will they portray this on screen?


My guess is it will be shot handheld from Bilbo's point of view, without the fiery effect for the same reasons you mentioned.
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 30, 2011 07:33
My guess is it will be shot handheld from Bilbo's point of view, without the fiery effect for the same reasons you mentioned

As much as I think it's brilliant, I'm not sure about it being ALL in POV - it might be too much for a viewer to see the camera spinning left and right for 2 to 3 minutes ... AND in 3D! hehe

I was thinking they might create a sort of transparent outline around Bilbo's shape - a sort of subtle liquid effect of the natural surroundings ...

[Edited on 30/8/2011 by Ilandir]
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 30, 2011 07:53
I agree that I wouldn't want it all in Bilbo POV - we'd lose all of Martin Freeman's hilarious facial expressions!
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 30, 2011 08:11
I agree that I wouldn't want it all in Bilbo POV - we'd lose all of Martin Freeman's hilarious facial expressions!

Unless they decide to ditch the entire Ring altogether and have him fight off the spiders without the Ring on ... that wouldn't do though!
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 31, 2011 02:59
I agree that I wouldn't want it all in Bilbo POV - we'd lose all of Martin Freeman's hilarious facial expressions!

Unless they decide to ditch the entire Ring altogether and have him fight off the spiders without the Ring on ... that wouldn't do though!

I'm not sure Bilbo would have fared quite as well under such circumstances! Haha. Plus, I wouldn't want him to retroactively upstage Sam. Haha.
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: August 31, 2011 07:33
Plus, I wouldn't want him to retroactively upstage Sam. Haha.

Lol! Definitely! Good point ...
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 02, 2011 07:04
Going back to the issue regarding Thorin's age. Those worried that Richard Armitage looks too young to be 195 years old from the photos ... what about this then?

Image

It certainly makes Thorin look much older than the photos released and closer to the 195 years mark. Not to mention this one:
http://www.richardarmitagenet.com/images/gallery/Hobbit/3rdProdVideo/album/slides/Video3-62.html

You see, fear not!
starofdunedain
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 02, 2011 10:37
I will admit that looks much better. Thanks for posting that Ilandir, I'm a little bit reassured although I would love to see the colored cloaks instead of the armor.
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 02, 2011 10:56
I agree, I think that's definitely better age-wise than the impression given from the inital publicity shots, though I'm still disheartened by the state of his beard.

I'm having a Very Secret Diaries moment...

Stubble Update: Subtly hairy.

I will say that the costumes, as they appear in the production videos, seem slightly better than the publicity shots which seem to have caught a nasty case of Photoshop-itis. It's par for the course in any publicity stills, so I'm not surprised, but I do think seeing the dwarves in costume in Bag End made them look slightly less ridiculous. (Though there are still a couple that are too over the top for my taste *cough* Bifur *cough* Nori *cough*)

Ilandir, regarding beards (I love how we keep trying to get away from this topic and it just keeps coming back) I came up with a much more plausible theory for Bombur than our awesome warrior vs. dragon backstory. We know that Bombur is excessively fat. This probably means that he eats a lot. Perhaps he eats so much and so frequently that the upkeep of his beard became too much of a hassle, so he keeps his chin shaved so as to easily wipe away crumbs? Hahaha.
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 02, 2011 05:07
(...) Being that the swords are from Gondolin, which had its own system of runes, I still believe it would be highly reasonable that the swords would be engraved in that system, which explains why Elrond would be needed to read them.


I'm still wondering about this. I'm not sure what the source is for Gondolin having its own, notably different system of runes.

In The Treason of Isengard Christopher Tolkien notes that the earliest example -- that's externally earliest, not earliest within the story -- the earliest example of true runic writing associated with Tolkien's Elves are the Gondolinic runes. It's noted that they are different from the Angerthas Daeron, but that doesn't necessarily mean they are imagined as different within the tale, or internally. The Gondolinic runes are dated in the 1920s (fairly early, externally) and they might be different because they are simply an early foray into a runic system used by Elves. The name itself might imply there were other systems I guess, but that's not very certain.

Later, around 1937-ish, Tolkien wrote a brief text on the history of the Elvish letters and the runes, and the latter are here called the Angerthas Dairon/Daeron. But I couldn't find any mention of any variant use in Gondolin; and the text generally relates that the Exiles, not simply the Exiles of Gondolin in any case, did not much use the runes.


So I'm still wondering if there is any text, at any external period in time, that certainly illustrates that Gondolin had a notably variant runic system from that of Elvish Beleriand -- especially something post 1955, as that's when the history of the runic systems was published, and 'set in stone' so to speak.

Pun intended

There could be! but I wonder: Dan Smith notes (on his website) that the runes on the swords were proabably in the Angerthas Daeron -- the filmmaker's consultants would seem to agree, as the Gondolinic runes have been published but are not employed on Orcrist (unless one is going to raise possible copyright concerns here). And again, if in 1960 it was the case that the runes of Gondolin were notably different, why didn't Tolkien employ this reason instead of the blood?

Well there could be another reason, but I think the real reason for Gandalf not being able to read the runes was external. When The Hobbit was written Gandalf was a 'wizard' but not really the Istar he would later become, and Elrond simply knew more than Gandalf here. When imagining the ultimate Gandalf from The Lord of the Rings this scenario arguably becomes harder to believe: enter the blood.

Unless I'm wrong?

__________
Incidentally, while I'm no expert on runic writing it looks to me like the word orkrist in the Gondolinic system would differ from the Angerthas Daeron with respect to the vowel o and the consonant k. In other words -rist would look the same in either system (thus the same runes for _r_rist).

Not that that matters really, or makes the name 'easy' to read or guess at. I'm just noting it, if correct

[Edited on 3/9/2011 by Elthir]
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 02, 2011 10:05
I will admit that looks much better. Thanks for posting that Ilandir, I'm a little bit reassured although I would love to see the colored cloaks instead of the armor.

Don't worry star, the cloaks will be there ...

Ilandir, regarding beards (I love how we keep trying to get away from this topic and it just keeps coming back) I came up with a much more plausible theory for Bombur than our awesome warrior vs. dragon backstory. We know that Bombur is excessively fat. This probably means that he eats a lot. Perhaps he eats so much and so frequently that the upkeep of his beard became too much of a hassle, so he keeps his chin shaved so as to easily wipe away crumbs? Hahaha.

That's a really cool idea, asea! Although I admit, I miss our previous theory, this one is much more tangible shall we say, hehe!


Well there could be another reason, but I think the real reason for Gandalf not being able to read the runes was external. When The Hobbit was written Gandalf was a 'wizard' but not really the Istar he would later become, and Elrond simply knew more than Gandalf here. When imagining the ultimate Gandalf from The Lord of the Rings this scenario arguably becomes harder to believe: enter the blood.

Elthir, I think the explanation you provided in this, is probably the main reason for this issue. Things changed constantly between writings and certainly, alot of things varied greatly (or contradicted each other) between the different works
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 03, 2011 05:53
(...) Being that the swords are from Gondolin, which had its own system of runes, I still believe it would be highly reasonable that the swords would be engraved in that system, which explains why Elrond would be needed to read them.


I'm still wondering about this. I'm not sure what the source is for Gondolin having its own, notably different system of runes.

In The Treason of Isengard Christopher Tolkien notes that the earliest example -- that's externally earliest, not earliest within the story -- the earliest example of true runic writing associated with Tolkien's Elves are the Gondolinic runes. It's noted that they are different from the Angerthas Daeron, but that doesn't necessarily mean they are imagined as different within the tale, or internally. The Gondolinic runes are dated in the 1920s (fairly early, externally) and they might be different because they are simply an early foray into a runic system used by Elves. The name itself might imply there were other systems I guess, but that's not very certain.


Here is some information I was able to find on the Gondolin runes - it's not direct from a canon source, (I'm not at home and don't have any with me) but it's information that someone has compiled on Tolkien's runes and languages:

"This system was perhaps an invention of Pengolodh or other loremasters, and was employed obviously in Gondolin (or in Nevrast, at earliest).

Like the Tengwar and the Cirth, the forms of these runes show a relation between sound and shape. It is not known if the few similarities to the cirth are coincidental or not. Pengolodh, however, was not aware of the Cirth before he, with the survivors of destroyed Gondolin, migrated to the Mouths of Sirion.

It is not known if the values given by Tolkien (and presented here) are the original, or his own adaptation for writing English, Modern or Old. One reason against the former is that the sounds given are not found in the known elven languages of the First Age, but it may be that it was designed for notating a variety of languages. Glamdring and Orcrist, the famous swords, had probably inscriptions in that system, because Elrond (who it is stated to know of all types of runes) could read their inscriptions since he was born in Arvernien, while Gandalf was unable to.

The system of Gondolin was perhaps dropped out of use after its fall, but used for a while in Arvernien. It is mentioned that there Pengolodh was fascinated by the Certhas Daeron brought by the survivors of Doriath (perhaps it seemed to him a more perfected system), and adopted it for his works. They seem to have been obsoleted and forgotten by the Third Age, and this is supported by the abovementioned fact that only Elrond could read the swords’ inscriptions.

This system has appeared only in an article of Mythlore issue 69, by Paul Nolan Hyde, publishing an early concept of Tolkien. Its existence is not explicitly stated in the known later texts, but the above story about Glamdring is evidence that indeed a different kind of runes was used in Gondolin."

"This form of runes, while superficially similar to other runic systems such as the Angerthas or the Anglo-Saxon runes, has a unique relationship between the shapes of the letters and the sounds. Noticeable in this system is the use of diamond shapes which make it look different from other rune systems. Almost all that we know of the Gondolinic Runes was published by Paul Nolan Hyde in Mythlore, No. 69, in the summer of 1992. For information on the original publication check out unpublished and slightly published manuscripts and scroll down to the bottom for how to order back issues of Mythlore. I give here a chart based on that information.

Interestingly enough, it has not been possible to determine exactly which language Tolkien had in mind when he produced this alphabet. The letters do not match the pattern of phonemes of any of the languages we might expect, such as the languages of Middle-earth or the Indo-European languages of the real world. However, the phoneme system is fairly close to Old English, though it is not clear what they needed with unvoiced n. Since Gondolin was known for the learning of the linguists who lived there, it may be that the alphabet was designed to be used for notating a variety of languages. The alphabet is quite sufficient for writing English, however. For that purpose, I include a list here of the pronunciation of some of the less obvious sounds.

There is no known example by Tolkien of the use of the Gondolinic Runes, however we find an apparent reference to their use in The Hobbit. Tolkien describes the swords which Bilbo, Gandalf and the dwarves find in the troll hoard, "Two [swords] caught their eyes particularly, because of their beautiful scabbards and jeweled hilts." The swords are much too fine to be the product of trolls, but Gandalf is unable to read the inscriptions and says, "when we can read the runes on them we shall know more about them," [Chapter on Roast Mutton]. Later in Rivendell the swords are shown to Elrond because "Elrond knew all about runes of every kind." He tells them that "They are old swords, very old swords of the High Elves of the West, my kin. They were made in Gondolin for the Goblin-wars," and he then reads their names "Glamdring" for the sword which Gandalf has chosen, and "Orcrist" for the sword of Thorin [Chapter on A Short Rest]. While runes of Gondolin are never mentioned again, Gandalf retains his sword Glamdring into the Lord of the Rings, where it appears "girt at his side" in the chapter "The Ring goes South.""

So basically, it seems to be a rather circular argument - it is know that the Runes of Gondolin exist because we have physical examples of them, but the main support for their in-story relevance seems to be the fact that Gandalf is unable to read the runes on the swords.


Incidentally, while I'm no expert on runic writing it looks to me like the word orkrist in the Gondolinic system would differ from the Angerthas Daeron with respect to the vowel o and the consonant k. In other words -rist would look the same in either system (thus the same runes for _r_rist).

Not that that matters really, or makes the name 'easy' to read or guess at. I'm just noting it, if correct


I did double check that, and it would appear that you are correct in your translation of the runes, so we see that on Orcrist, many of the letters would have been similar. Glamdring, on the other hand, would have had more different letters, as the "G", "L", "A", "M", "D", "NG" are all different. Furthermore, many of the runes look similar, but represent different letters, so it could be that Gandalf was reading them as if they WERE Cirth and was coming up with something that made no sense at all. (Glamdring written in Gondolinian Runes would read "MZ_UGRIB" if read as Cirth)

I mean, the information I'm going on here is mainly that A) Tolkien did create a system of runes specific to Gondolin, and B) In the published version of the work, it is stated that Gandalf cannot read the runes on either Orcrist or Glamdring, but Elrond can, and explains that they were swords of Gondolin.

Beyond that, it is just logic that I'm following - why give the swords to Elrond to read if Gandalf could read them once they'd been cleaned? The way it's stated in the book, it seems to imply that Elrond's wisdom is sought because he knows runes of all kinds, implying that Gandalf didn't know this specific kind. Which, again, is nothing against Gandalf, considering it was a very specific system that had fallen out of use.

The main reason I'm not a fan of the whole blood-on-the-sword thing is, again, just logic - Thorin and Gandalf are drawn to the swords because of their beautiful scabbards and jeweled hilts - those don't sound like swords that are covered in blood. It also implies that they're in the scabbards at the time. Now, if a sword is not cleaned before it is put in its scabbard, there are going to be two problems you're going to face: First, the fact that blood is very corrosive, and would have destroyed the sword, and second, that if you place a bloody sword in a scabbard, the blood can act as an adhesive, effectively sticking the sword in the scabbard. However, I am willing to accept that elves of Gondolin, being elves, and therefore really badass, were able to manufacture blades that would not be corroded in such a way - we know that Aragorn has a sheath for Anduril so that the sword will never be stained - but if it was the same for Orcrist and Glamdring, then they wouldn't have been dirty to begin with. So it's kind of a Catch 22 - it would be possible for the sword to be assumed to be immune to the corrosion a normal blade would face because of its elven origins, but making that assumption would most likely imply that the sword would not have been stained at all in the first place.

Again, I am going beyond textual evidence here, I am just following related textual evidence to what I believe is a logical conclusion - that obviously doesn't mean that I am right.
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 04:08
Here is some information I was able to find on the Gondolin runes - it's not direct from a canon source, (I'm not at home and don't have any with me) but it's information that someone has compiled on Tolkien's runes and languages:


Well, yes I meant from the books

http://www.forodrim.org/gobennas/chron_en.html

For example, looks well researched right? And it is well researched, and Mans Bjorkman knows his stuff well enough -- but this is not only a bit out of date now (concerning Pengolodh), but a conflation of early and later texts. No doubt Mans knows this, but still one finds it often enough in threads or websites: people like to try to consolidate disparate texts into 'one history' despite that the external history might tell a different story.

So basically, it seems to be a rather circular argument - it is know that the Runes of Gondolin exist because we have physical examples of them, but the main support for their in-story relevance seems to be the fact that Gandalf is unable to read the runes on the swords.


I agree, and thus my challenge of this. And dating the texts involved, where possible, is important; arguably why Christopher Tolkien works hard to provide this context as well as other important points.


Beyond that, it is just logic that I'm following - why give the swords to Elrond to read if Gandalf could read them once they'd been cleaned? The way it's stated in the book, it seems to imply that Elrond's wisdom is sought because he knows runes of all kinds, implying that Gandalf didn't know this specific kind. Which, again, is nothing against Gandalf, considering it was a very specific system that had fallen out of use.


But we must allow the idea of the blood to fit with the revision itself, rather than with the story as it stood. John Rateliff (History of The Hobbit) even notes that we can assume Tolkien was going to recast the presentation of the swords in Rivendell given the introduction of the dried blood (Tolkien stopped the new text before this point).

The main reason I'm not a fan of the whole blood-on-the-sword thing is, again, just logic - Thorin and Gandalf are drawn to the swords because of their beautiful scabbards and jeweled hilts - those don't sound like swords that are covered in blood.


But you yourself note the implication that the actual blades cannot be seen at first, and Tolkien preserved the reference to the hilts and scabbards in the 1960 Hobbit.

It also implies that they're in the scabbards at the time.


Yes, Gandalf (or someone) 'half-draws' out at least one of the swords to find the dried blood.

Now, if a sword is not cleaned before it is put in its scabbard, there are going to be two problems you're going to face: First, the fact that blood is very corrosive, and would have destroyed the sword, and second, that if you place a bloody sword in a scabbard, the blood can act as an adhesive, effectively sticking the sword in the scabbard. However, I am willing to accept that elves of Gondolin, being elves, and therefore really badass, were able to manufacture blades that would not be corroded in such a way - we know that Aragorn has a sheath for Anduril so that the sword will never be stained - but if it was the same for Orcrist and Glamdring, then they wouldn't have been dirty to begin with. So it's kind of a Catch 22 - it would be possible for the sword to be assumed to be immune to the corrosion a normal blade would face because of its elven origins, but making that assumption would most likely imply that the sword would not have been stained at all in the first place.


In my opinion you are pushing science and logic too hard here. Swords immunue to corrosion could still be stained in my opinion. And if that (arguably) makes them easier to clean so be it, but simple curiosity does not equal need, and there is no story-based reason to suggest the blades need be cleaned right away.

If Orkish wolfriders existed then there must have been wolves large enough, or Orcs small enough. That the blades were stained but not corroded would not be problematic for me.
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 08:24
Woah ... this is getting complicated! I'm sure it i'll be easilyr explained (if not, overlooked altogether) in the movies.

Anyways, I'd like to go back to the issue of where the films will be split. Everyone knows there have been many suggestions flying around and the one that seems to stick the most is the one after Bilbo and the Dwarves escape from Mirkwood by means of the barrels.

Now, I have to admit that is a good way to split the movie, however it doesn't seem to fit the description given by Del Toro about the Dwarves' relationship towards Bilbo.

I think it would be better if they split the film just after the spider battle and the company discovering that Thorin has been captured (or else when they themselves are capture the following day by the elves). Not only is there a change in the Dwarves' perspective towards Bilbo - especially after the spider fighting (hence this Relationship Change) but also, there would be a nice cliffhanger for the opening of the second movie.

What does everyone else think?
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 08:25
I understand you're looking for a reference from the books, but as I pointed out, it's something that is rather circular - the Gondolin runes are not mentioned specifically in the book, the main canon support for them is Gandalf's inability to read the runes on the blades. However, there really isn't any more canonical support for the blood stain idea, which is from a draft that was neither completed, nor published.

I mean, to me, the dried blood theory seems unnecessary - Tolkien had established the existence of the Gondolin runes very early in his writings, the swords in question are from Gondolin, and bear markings that, if read as the language they APPEAR to be carved in (Cirth), amount to gibberish. It doesn't seem at all unreasonable that Elrond, being more widely knowledgeable in lore and languages, would be needed to read the swords and determine their history.

I've said it before, and I will say it again, this really is all irrelevant anyway: The 1960's drafts were never completed or published, so the canonical version of The Hobbit includes Gandalf not being able to read the runes. Furthermore, the entire reason this conversation began was because we were trying to determine the accuracy of the runes on Orcrist, which, as we've already said, are in Cirth, so it doesn't matter whether or not they're supposed to be, they already are what they are.

Not to mention the fact that non-glowing Cirth-engraved Glamdring has been defying canon for the last 10 years anyway. Haha.
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 08:32
Woah ... this is getting complicated! I'm sure it i'll be easilyr explained (if not, overlooked altogether) in the movies.


It's really not, because as I keep saying over and over, it's a moot point. The engraving on both Glamdring and Orcrist are in Cirth, so the only thing left to be seen is whether Gandalf can read them, and if he can't what explanation is offered for it. Either way, there is going to be some sort of contradiction.



Anyways, I'd like to go back to the issue of where the films will be split. Everyone knows there have been many suggestions flying around and the one that seems to stick the most is the one after Bilbo and the Dwarves escape from Mirkwood by means of the barrels.

Now, I have to admit that is a good way to split the movie, however it doesn't seem to fit the description given by Del Toro about the Dwarves' relationship towards Bilbo.

I think it would be better if they split the film just after the spider battle and the company discovering that Thorin has been captured (or else when they themselves are capture the following day by the elves). Not only is there a change in the Dwarves' perspective towards Bilbo - especially after the spider fighting (hence this Relationship Change) but also, there would be a nice cliffhanger for the opening of the second movie.

What does everyone else think?

I've always had a bit of trouble in thinking about this, just because to me, there doesn't really seem to be a natural break where it could be split. I do think that the whole cliffhanger idea would be kind of cool. I actually kind of wished that those cliffhangers had made it into the films - for example, if we followed where the books split, Fellowship would have ended before we knew Boromir was dead, and Two Towers would have ended with Frodo, who we now know is NOT in fact, dead, being taken by the enemy. Pretty agonizing wait for everybody who doesn't know what happens! Haha.

I think the other thing is, we don't really know what kind of expanded and additional material is going to be added. I'm not really sure exactly where and how the White Council and anything involving the Necromancer is going to be inserted into the story. With that in mind, it's kind of hard to pick out where the halfway point would be, you know?
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 09:14

I think the other thing is, we don't really know what kind of expanded and additional material is going to be added. I'm not really sure exactly where and how the White Council and anything involving the Necromancer is going to be inserted into the story. With that in mind, it's kind of hard to pick out where the halfway point would be, you know?

True. But I don't believe they'll end the first film with a scene from the White Council ... after all this is about the Hobbit story.
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 10:53
I understand you're looking for a reference from the books, but as I pointed out, it's something that is rather circular - the Gondolin runes are not mentioned specifically in the book,...


To be clear I mean any book, not simply The Hobbit. So far I can't find anything here but an early slip of paper of runes that simply says Gondolinic runes on it -- with no context (again so far, as I asked on another forum as well) if these were meant to be notably different from any other runes in Beleriand (at the point they were invented) -- never mind if they had any real relevance to the story of The Hobbit as originally written.

... the main canon support for them is Gandalf's inability to read the runes on the blades. However, there really isn't any more canonical support for the blood stain idea, which is from a draft that was neither completed, nor published.


Yet so far the 'Gondolinic runes' explanation appears to be a fan-made theory based on the existence of 'different' runes written on a slip of paper that has no necessary connection with The Hobbit as first written...

... versus an actual and specific explanation -- written by Tolkien himself -- that answers the very same question (in a post Lord of the Rings context as well). Yes both are unpublished by the author, but the author himself explains why Gandalf 'couldn't' read the runes, while some are seemingly making an assumption based on a comparison of two 'different' writing systems that were written at different times. Gnomish differs from Sindarin too, for example, but Gnomish only really exists in the external chronology, as it was ultimately replaced in stages -- leaving Middle-earth with Sindarin, and its internal history.

(...) I've said it before, and I will say it again, this really is all irrelevant anyway: The 1960's drafts were never completed or published, so the canonical version of The Hobbit includes Gandalf not being able to read the runes. Furthermore, the entire reason this conversation began was because we were trying to determine the accuracy of the runes on Orcrist, which, as we've already said, are in Cirth, so it doesn't matter whether or not they're supposed to be, they already are what they are.


Yes the conversation began that way, but I brought up the matter again for a different reason however. It may be off topic in a larger sense, but I'm challenging statements made in this thread, and asking for verification from Tolkien-written sources.

If you only care about the film relevance at this point, then that's fine of course
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 04, 2011 11:37

I think the other thing is, we don't really know what kind of expanded and additional material is going to be added. I'm not really sure exactly where and how the White Council and anything involving the Necromancer is going to be inserted into the story. With that in mind, it's kind of hard to pick out where the halfway point would be, you know?

True. But I don't believe they'll end the first film with a scene from the White Council ... after all this is about the Hobbit story.

No, no, I don't think so either, but if, for example, they stick all the White-Council-related stuff into a somewhat early point in the story, the end of the spider battle may be closer to the middle of the story as a whole than the barrel escape, or vice versa if it is placed predominantly in the second half. That's what I was trying to say - where the majority of the new material is inserted may have an influence on where the break is, because it will determine where the "halfway" kind of point is.

I suppose it also depends on what scenes they feel are most important and want to spend the most time on. For example, the Bo5A doesn't actually take up a HUGE amount of space in the book, (probably because Bilbo is unconscious for a chunk of it), but they may choose to make that a great bulk of the second film, kind of like what happened with the latest Harry Potter two-parter. The second film was almost entirely dominated by the main battle sequence, whereas the first film was the quest that lead them there, so to speak. I think the great strength The Hobbit has is that the "quest" half of the story is far more interesting than spending a lot of time camping in the woods, what with the spiders and goblins and Beorn and all sorts of delightfully terrifying things. Haha.

So far I can't find anything here but an early slip of paper of runes that simply says Gondolinic runes on it -- with no context (again so far, as I asked on another forum as well) if these were meant to be notably different from any other runes in Beleriand (at the point they were invented) -- never mind if they had any real relevance to the story of The Hobbit as originally written.

I have literally no Tolkien related material on my person right now, so I really can't provide you what we're looking for, but we do have the Gondolin runes and we can compare them to Cirth and see that they are different. I'm not sure how different they were intended to be, since it's pointed out that they have a relation between the look of the rune and the sound they represent, but just as you pointed out that Orcrist spelled in either type of rune would be similar, Glamdring would be quite different.


Yet so far the 'Gondolinic runes' explanation appears to be a fan-made theory based on the existence of 'different' runes written on a slip of paper that has no necessary connection with The Hobbit as first written...

... versus an actual and specific explanation -- written by Tolkien himself -- that answers the very same question (in a post Lord of the Rings context as well). Yes both are unpublished by the author, but the author himself explains why Gandalf 'couldn't' read the runes, while some are seemingly making an assumption based on a comparison of two 'different' writing systems that were written at different times.


At the end of the day, neither argument can be supported by strictly canonical evidence, I.E. strictly material that was written and published by Tolkien. I'm sure there are plenty of fresh debates that we could cook up looking at other drafts or revisions that were never actually completed or published. That's why I keep saying that I am following what is written in the complete, published version of the book to what I find to be a logical conclusion. At the time the book was written, it was the Gondolin runes, not the alternative explanation that was in existence, which is why I find that a logical explanation.

If you only care about the film relevance at this point, then that's fine of course

Well, this is the film thread, and the reason it was brought up was because someone asked about the runes that were put on the film sword, and we've already gotten far enough off topic that it has alienated other readers of the thread, so I will emphasize once more that, in terms of what we are trying to discuss in this thread, the point is moot.

[Edited on 4/9/2011 by asea_aranion]
Elthir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 05, 2011 03:56
I have literally no Tolkien related material on my person right now, so I really can't provide you what we're looking for, but we do have the Gondolin runes and we can compare them to Cirth and see that they are different. I'm not sure how different they were intended to be,...


The point is, there is no evidence so far that these two sets of runes are even necessarily meant to be compared in this way -- it could be like comparing Gnomish to Sindarin and saying they are different -- but they were never meant to be compared this way, as the difference is not due to anything within the history, but rather to Tolkien changing his mind.

This could be why the Gondolinic runes are different, but you don't even seem to be acknowledging this possibility. To anyone reading this thread (with the books): is there any evidence that the Angerthas Daeron even existed in Tolkien's imagination at the time Tolkien invented these Gondolinic runes?

At the time the book was written, it was the Gondolin runes, not the alternative explanation that was in existence, which is why I find that a logical explanation.


Yes, it's a convenient theory and at least speaks to the published version of the Hobbit, but the fact that the 1937ish text on runes and letters doesn't seem to mention any notably different mode in Gondolin, or that Tolkien did not employ this explanation for the 1960 Hobbit -- is quite notable in my opinion.

Well, this is the film thread, and the reason it was brought up was because someone asked about the runes that were put on the film sword, and we've already gotten far enough off topic that it has alienated other readers of the thread, so I will emphasize once more that, in terms of what we are trying to discuss in this thread, the point is moot.


But how do you know this little side matter has alienated anyone? Or why should it? And if you don't want to continue with this matter (as it seems) why not say so, or simply ignore the question, rather than continuing to post about it then imply or state that it's moot and off topic in any case.

My question stands for anyone who does have the books at hand. And if no one answers, OK.

And please feel free to talk about the films in any event
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 05, 2011 05:42
But how do you know this little side matter has alienated anyone?


Because Ilandir has come in and tried to redirect the conversation after stating that our aside had gotten too complicated, and my response to that back-on-track conversation got lost in this continued debate.

At the end of the day, the eventual answers to all of your questions is "I don't know." because I am not Tolkien and do not have the ultimate answer. But neither do you.

So in the interest of getting back on topic...



I think the other thing is, we don't really know what kind of expanded and additional material is going to be added. I'm not really sure exactly where and how the White Council and anything involving the Necromancer is going to be inserted into the story. With that in mind, it's kind of hard to pick out where the halfway point would be, you know?


True. But I don't believe they'll end the first film with a scene from the White Council ... after all this is about the Hobbit story.

No, no, I don't think so either, but if, for example, they stick all the White-Council-related stuff into a somewhat early point in the story, the end of the spider battle may be closer to the middle of the story as a whole than the barrel escape, or vice versa if it is placed predominantly in the second half. That's what I was trying to say - where the majority of the new material is inserted may have an influence on where the break is, because it will determine where the "halfway" kind of point is.

I suppose it also depends on what scenes they feel are most important and want to spend the most time on. For example, the Bo5A doesn't actually take up a HUGE amount of space in the book, (probably because Bilbo is unconscious for a chunk of it), but they may choose to make that a great bulk of the second film, kind of like what happened with the latest Harry Potter two-parter. The second film was almost entirely dominated by the main battle sequence, whereas the first film was the quest that lead them there, so to speak. I think the great strength The Hobbit has is that the "quest" half of the story is far more interesting than spending a lot of time camping in the woods, what with the spiders and goblins and Beorn and all sorts of delightfully terrifying things. Haha.


Any other thoughts on where the story might be split for the films?
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 05, 2011 06:27
I agree with your points asea, regarding the issue of the amount of importance the battle will be given. I guess we need to think this in terms of the entire 5 films including the Trilogy. Someone had once suggested that, to create that difference and hate between Orcs and the Free Peoples that is so present in the Trilogy, the Bo5A would be an important event in the second Hobbit film - thus creating that divide between the two and the intolerance between each other. However, that's open for debate.

Any other thoughts on where the story might be split for the films?

Before all this talk about the barrel sequence and Del Toro's statement of the Dwarves' perspective change towards Bilbo, I always thought that the best place was to end the film right before they enter Mirkwood. It seems more balanced and provides both a sort-of cliffhanger and a closure (one stage is over, the next will begin).

I even heard someone suggest it should be as early as Bilbo's escape from Gollum's cave or as late as Smaug's attack on Lake Town ... both of which seem unlikely to me.
asea_aranion
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 05, 2011 06:42
I agree that Smaug's attack on Laketown seems far too late. You keep suggesting various options that would end in some sort of cliffhanger, and I really like that idea, especially considering the fact that that was something that was lost in the splitting of the trilogy.

I also can see the entrance to Mirkwood as being a good point at which to split it - imagine the company at the edge of this really terrifying looking forest, Gandalf has just left, and they're looking up at the trees and it blacks out. I could see that working well.
Ilandir
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Post RE: The Hobbit film
on: September 05, 2011 07:38
I also can see the entrance to Mirkwood as being a good point at which to split it - imagine the company at the edge of this really terrifying looking forest, Gandalf has just left, and they're looking up at the trees and it blacks out. I could see that working well.

Yeah, pity though that this is not a highly-plausible split
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